Of course you realize that Ephesians 1:4-14 is not punctuated in the original, inspired Greek with the commas and periods and semicolons you spend so much time fretting over above.

And you would be a liar. I have a copy of the Greek New Testament published by the Trinitarian Bible Society, and the section of the text that is verses 3-6 DOES contain commas and a semicolon. In fact, the verses 4-14 which you cite (which you start in the second phrase, not the beginning of the sentence) does in fact contain all three punctuation marks you speak of. What you obviously do not understand is that any translation, to be understandable in another language, and still convey the exact same meaning, must vary somewhat in the punctuation.

The godly, English translators added the punctuation for ease of reading, especially in public.

Don’t try a subtle smear of the King James Translators. If you had bothered to read William Tyndale’s translation which I also posted here, you would see that Tyndale was more direct than the King James Translators in insuring the true meaning was conveyed — that the predestination spoken of is applicable AFTER someone has believed the Gospel.

Now, if it is such a “non-issue” as you state, why did you bother to comment? I full well know why — to discredit the entire article as being worthless. How very deceitful — but normal operation for a Calvinist.

Please don’t try the faux civility and cordiality with me, it won’t wash. I do see right through it.

Since you are so smart, please provide the following:

• Verifiable proof that you are a properly trained scholar in Koine and Classical Greek.
• Proof that your training and ability in said Greek equals or exceeds that of John Bois or Lancelot Andrews.
• Proof that you have translated portions of the proper Greek New Testament text — without assistance, and your translation is proper.

Otherwise, everything you state is just an opinion, and not fact. Moreover, we all know about opinions . . .

At least I stated the facts as they exist in English (which so happens to match the Greek).

I so wish you could understand English. Your interpretation is entirely skewed. The following is a specific Scriptural reference to specific Scriptural concepts:

Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. (Isaiah 28:9)

The context is “knowledge” and the teaching of that knowledge, and “doctrine” and the understanding of that doctrine. The questions are framed as “Who shall be taught by Him these things?” The answer is given that the “weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts.” This is a specific reference to those who are growing in the LORD — born-again children of God. (Ref. Hebrews 5:12-6:3)

If you had bothered to read carefully, you would have realized that the context of the quote is learning from the Scripture. After all, “precept upon precept” is a specific reference to the principles found in Scripture. Perhaps you ought to read Psalm 119 thoroughly, and see how much “precepts” are referenced.

By the way, I explain precisely why I used the passage from Isaiah 28. Kindly read the post — all of it.